Re: useless example #401

From: joedees@bellsouth.net
Date: Sun 25 May 2003 - 18:41:41 GMT

  • Next message: Wade T. Smith: "Re: useless example #400"

    >
    > On Sunday, May 25, 2003, at 05:48 AM, memetics-digest wrote:
    >
    > > The fact that [...] speaking [and] writing) can encode the same
    > > message.
    >
    > They sure can. But, will two people be able to understand them?
    >
    > Let's take your example- Jack is told to be at a certain place at a
    > certain time, and Jill is told the same thing, only Jack is told in
    > speech, and Jill by written symbols of speech. However,they are both
    > told this thing in the same language venue, let's say english,
    > although all that is required is that they both share this venue, and
    > that is _not_ an example of differing modalities, only different
    > symbols.
    >
    > You want different modalities? Fine. Tell Jack in english, and write
    > to Jill in Chinese.
    >
    > Now, tell me if Jill will show up.
    >
    Sure, if both are bilingual. But the point of your 'performance only' model is that only the action matters, The action of speaking is vastly different from the action of writing. Thus, the same words, communicated by these two different systems, even if they are both communicated in english, require completely different performances. This disparity of action leading to equivalent understanding is a fact that your shema cannot abide.
    > - Wade
    >
    >
    > ===============================================================
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    =============================================================== This was distributed via the memetics list associated with the Journal of Memetics - Evolutionary Models of Information Transmission For information about the journal and the list (e.g. unsubscribing) see: http://www.cpm.mmu.ac.uk/jom-emit



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